Deeper Commentary
CHAPTER 2
2:1 My brothers, do not hold the faith of our Lord Jesus Christ, the
Lord of glory, with partiality- This gives the Lord Jesus the
title of “the glory" (Gk., as also in Lk. 2:32; Eph. 1:17). And James
makes the point that we cannot believe in the Lord Jesus as the Lord of
glory and have respect of persons. This may seem a strange connection at
first sight. But perhaps the sense is that if we see the height and
surpassing extent of His glory, all others will pale into
insignificance, and therefore we will be biased for or against nobody and
nothing because of the way they are all as nothing before the brightness
of the glory of the Lord we follow. "The Lord" is not in the original-
"Our Lord Jesus Christ of glory". This idea of Jesus being the glory is
picked up in 1 Peter 4:14: "If you be reproached for the name of Christ,
happy are you; for the spirit of glory (parallel with "the name of
Christ") and of God rests upon you"- as the cloud of glory did over the
tabernacle. Also on the same track is 2 Cor. 3:8,9: "How shall not the
ministration of the Spirit (in Christ) be rather glorious? For if the
ministration of condemnation (the Mosaic law) be glory, much more doth the
ministration of righteousness exceed in glory". Thus James describing
Jesus as the Lord of glory may be yet another hint against keeping to the
Mosaic glory. Notice the gentle yet firm way in which James makes the
point- appealing to his Jewish readers through Biblical allusions which he
knew they would appreciate.
"With respect of persons" is another link back to the Proverbs- here to
24:23: "These things also belong to the wise. It is not good to have
respect of persons in judgement". Thus through having wisdom- which is
from the word- respect of persons is avoided. This is the point made in
2:8,9: "If ye fulfil… the Scripture... you do well: but if you have
respect of persons, you commit sin"- through fulfilling the Scriptures, we
avoid respecting persons. There is also a link with the fact that "God is
no respecter of persons" (Acts 10:34) in a Jew/ Gentile context. It seems
from this allusion that the Jewish brethren were prejudiced against poor
Gentile believers.
2:2 For if there come into your synagogue a man with a gold ring, in
fine clothing, and there come in also a poor man in vile clothing- Gk.
'Gold fingered'- not just one ring!. The use of the word 'synagogue' here
shows that some of the early Jewish ecclesias were the result of whole
synagogues being converted to Christ. The ecclesias are also called
synagogues in Acts 6:9; thus Heb.10:25 reads literally "Not forsaking the
synagoguing of yourselves together". The fact James uses the word
'synagogue' rather than 'ecclesia' indicates the degree to which early
Jewish Christians still kept a fair amount of the Jewish approach to
religion. The Lord said that the time would come when they would be cast
out of the synagogues; He made no demand that they leave the system at
that stage, for He had no concept of guilt by association. Thus the letter
of Acts 15 concerning this implies that it was felt quite in order for
Jewish believers to continue being circumcised, whilst the Gentile
believers still had to abstain from blood (Acts 15:29). Elsewhere Paul
vigorously argues that obedience to both these Mosaic commands was quite
irrelevant to salvation or spiritual growth. Similarly Paul seems to have
placed great importance on keeping a Jewish feast (Acts 18:21), whilst
telling the Colossians (2:14-17) that this was not necessary due to
Christ's death. The rich stranger who unexpectedly turned up at their
ecclesia perhaps refers to the same class of Jewish itinerant preachers as
are mentioned in 2 Jn.7-11. James is writing to Jewish believers. The
"poor man" walking into the ecclesia was a brother- "the poor of this
world rich in faith, and heirs of the Kingdom" (v.5). If this poor brother
was also a Jew, why does James talk about "Your assembly… you have respect
to (the rich)... and say to the poor....""? We have two possibilities at
least:
1) The letter was written just to a group of rich Jews; or
2) The letter was written generally to all Jewish believer and the "poor
man" represented the poor Gentile brethren whom the Jewish believers
despised.
There is fair support for both:
1) Poor believers are equally in need of exhortation as are the rich. They
are even more prone to the temptations of materialism; but there is
nothing aimed at this group in James. Chapter 2 rebukes rich brethren for
belittling these poor brethren. Chapter 3 is about brethren seeking to be
"many masters" (3:1) and proudly talking to that end. These are the
temptations especially faced by rich, capable brethren. Chapter 4
describes the itinerant Jewish traders always hungry to make more money
(4:13). Chapter 5 is specifically about "you rich men... your riches are
corrupted" (5:1,2).
2) "The poor of this world" could be Gentiles- "He has dispersed abroad;
he has given to the poor" (2 Cor. 8:9) is quoted by Paul to show that the
poor Gentiles had received spiritual riches, and should therefore
contribute their earthly riches to the poor Jewish believers at Jerusalem
(Rom. 15:26). "Rich in faith" would then refer to the Gentiles being given
the spiritual riches of Christ (2 Cor. 9:9). "Heirs of the kingdom"
recalls Eph.3:6 "That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs" through also
having the promises of inheriting the Kingdom made to them (Gal. 3:27-29).
There are no doubt elements of truth in both views. Thus the letter does
seem to be aimed at the rich Jewish Christians who had fled Israel from
the persecution of Saul; but there may also be a secondary implication
that the poor brethren they were despising were Gentiles. This would be in
keeping with the fact that every reference in James to the Jew/Gentile,
Moses/ Christ question within the ecclesia is indirect and subtle.
One of the reasons for James writing was to encourage the Jews to
spiritually improve so that the second coming would be hastened and the
Kingdom established for real, rather than the 'coming' being just a
'coming down' manifestation of the Lord, as it actually was. It was the
affluent sector of Jewry who had a partial faith in Christ whom James
singles out as being the important ones whose repentance would hasten the
second coming. Applying these things to the last days, it cannot be
without significance that the 'Jews for Jesus' movement is gaining
phenomenal ground- amongst whom? The affluent, loud mouthed (cp. James 3),
money-loving, trade-crazy Jews of North America (cp. James 4:13; 5:2).
Bearing in mind the orthodox false doctrines these people are full of,
they fit well their prototypes in James- Jews who were not truly humble to
the power of the word, committed to a 'hail fellow well met' Christianity
(cp. 2:2,3). Notice that generally it has not been the poor Jews of
London's East End or downtown Tel Aviv who are professing Christ. We know
that the Jews are still to face their greatest holocaust. How relevant
then is James 5:1-3: "You rich men, weep and howl for your miseries that
shall come upon you... you have heaped treasures together for the last
days". Every persecution of the Jews has been partly inspired by Gentile
jealousy at their wealth- not least in these last days. Turning the
spotlight to spiritual Israel- maybe the implication of James is that if
only we can summon the courage to repent of our gross materialism into
which the ecclesia of the last days has slumped, then there will be a
hastening of the second coming. It is Biblically argued elsewhere that a
specific rejection of materialism by the ecclesia of the last days may
save us from part of the tribulation to come, and thus hasten the coming
of Christ for us. If we do not curb it, we may need to go through the
tribulation to achieve the same spiritual effect upon us as would a
specific repentance from it here and now.
"A gold ring, in goodly apparel" probably connects with 1 Peter 3:1,3:
"you wives... whose adorning let it not be that outward adorning of...
wearing of gold, or of putting on of apparel". The links between James and
Peter are so numerous that it seems fair to assume that there is a
conscious connection here. In this case it is worth noting that the
passage in 1 Peter 3:3 about adorning has subtle reference to Judaism-
e.g. "adorning" is the Greek 'kosmos'-ing, often used about the Jewish
age. 'Cosmetic' is derived from this word too.
"A poor man in vile raiment” may also be talking about spiritual pride and
partiality. For the word "vile" carries the idea of morally filthy- it is
translated "filthiness" a few verses earlier in 1:21 in a moral sense; and
"the filthiness of the flesh" in 1 Peter 3:21 (note Rev.22:11 too). The
idea of raiment or clothing representing a spiritual state is common in
the New Testament. Thus James may be warning them against judging a
brother who, due to his poverty, appears outwardly to have an appearance
of evil when this is not the case.
2:3 And you have regard to him that wears the fine clothing, and say:
Sit here in a good place; and you say to the poor man: Stand there, or,
Sit under my footstool- The Greek for "fine" implies dazzling
bright- it is used of the "white (same word) linen" in which the saints
will be clothed (Rev. 15:6; 19:8), the "bright clothing" of the Angel in
Acts 10:30 and "the bright and morning star" (Rev. 22:16). This further
supports the suggestion that James 2 is referring to spiritual pride-
apart from wearing gaudy clothes, these brethren were imagining themselves
to be supremely righteous, and therefore lording it over those they
considered to be spiritually poor. This is almost confirmed beyond
question by the rest of the verse being an allusion to the parable of the
guests at the marriage supper- some come into the ecclesia wanting to
immediately have the places of honour, whilst others -the truly spiritual-
gratefully accept whatever place they are given. There is also possible
reference to Mt. 23:5,6 which also speaks of outward dressing by the Jews
to give a spiritual impression, and a loving of chief seats in the
synagogue: "They make broad their phylacteries, and enlarge the borders of
their garments, and love the uppermost rooms at (Jewish) feasts (cp. the
communion service), and the chief seats in the synagogues". The fact that
within the Jewish ecclesias there were seating arrangements in order of
seniority further shows how they were based around the Jewish synagogue
system, even suggesting that the ecclesia had the actual building as their
ecclesial hall. Similarly there is ample evidence that the communion
service was originally run on the lines of the Jewish Passover, with the
eating of a meal in fellowship as a vital part of the 'love-feast'. Notice
that James does not criticize the existence of such seating arrangements
in themselves, but the wrong brethren being put in the wrong place. "A
good place" does not just imply a nice seat- "good" is normally used in
the sense of being morally good, and is also translated "honest"; it comes
from a root meaning 'virtuous, morally worthy'. "Sit here under my
footstool" also has a mainly spiritual implication- unless some brethren
were so pompous that they had virtual thrones to sit on in the ecclesia.
Jesus being seated at God's footstool shows his subjection to Him
spiritually, and does not necessarily refer to the physical place where
Jesus sits. Marshall's Interlinear renders "sit here" as "sit here well",
implying that James' readers were thinking well of brethren in spiritual
terms due to their outwardly impressive appearance.
2:4 Do you not make distinctions among yourselves, and become judges
with evil thoughts?- Being partial within their minds, resulting in
them respecting ('judging') the thoughts generated by their evil minds
continues the theme of being only semi-spiritual due to being "double
minded", a result of not letting the word totally dominate the mind.
Verses 8 and 9 also go on to show that only through lack of application to
the word was this partial thinking coming about. In similar vein Jeremiah
accused the Jews of 'dissembling in their hearts' (42:20), using a Hebrew
word which can mean both 'to go astray' and also 'to vacillate'; as if
partiality and spiritual vacillation between good and evil are the same as
rank disobedience.
It makes an interesting exercise to read through the letter of James and
note how frequently we are warned about our internal thought processes; to
control them and have them influenced by the Lord is the essence of
following Him. James 2:4 would be an obvious example – when we see a well
dressed believer, we are not to judge him “within yourself” as a judge who
has evil thoughts, an unjust judge (see R.V.). We shouldn’t deceive
ourselves within ourselves (James 1:22), our mind is not to immediately
forget the truths we encounter in God’s word (James 1:25).
2:5 Listen, my beloved brothers. Did not God choose those that are poor
in the world to be rich in faith and heirs of the kingdom which he
promised to those that love him?- James really pleads with us to see
the importance of all this, as if he is physically with them and known to
them. This would again imply that the initial readership which James was
focussing on was quite a small group of brethren. This should not be read
merely as meaning 'God has called the poor people to the Gospel'- seeing
that the rich to whom James was writing had also been called (cp. Is.
66:2). Rather the emphasis is on "God (has) chosen the poor
of this world" for positions of authority within the ecclesia- implying,
in the context of v.3, that they had made a wrong choice, saying to
the man in gay clothing "sit here in a good place" in the ecclesia. Thus
James implies that God's choice should be our choice. The fact has to be
faced that looking around the ecclesias of today, it is not "the poor of
this world" who are in places of authority. Yet James here implies that
they should be- as does Paul (1 Cor. 6:4). Now it can reasonably be argued
that this category of brethren do not want such positions, and are happy
to see those humanly more competent doing the job. Because of this, it is
not the done thing to even nominate such brethren for office. Perhaps the
fault lies with both sections of our community- surely those brethren
should both be nominated and be prepared to accept responsibility, in the
light of what James and Paul are saying? Remember that Peter, James and
John were simple working men- but through the power of the Spirit James
could talk to his brethren as "my beloved brethren" and rebuke them. That
same Spirit can be in us through the word. 1 Cor. 6:4 shows beyond cavil
that in a case of disagreement or difficulty in judgement- and such cases
are now increasingly common- the opinion of the most humble and least
esteemed brother should be sought and accepted. Such a brother will, by
his very qualification for the task, naturally demur- as doubtless the
brother chosen in the Corinth ecclesia did initially (if they obeyed
Paul's advice). But surely this is what is required by these passages?
"Heirs of the Kingdom which he has promised to them that love Him" (v.5)
mirrors 1:12 "Blessed is the man
that endures temptation: for when he is tried, he shall receive the crown
of life, which he has promised to them that love Him". The implication is
that it is "the poor of this world" who successfully endured spiritual
temptation by the power of the word, and who therefore will have the
reward "which the Lord has promised to them that love Him". The repetition
of this phrase in 1:12 and 2:5 encourages us to make this interpretation.
Yet in the first century, "the poor of this world" would have been those
with the least free time, probably unable to read and anyway unlikely to
be able to afford their own Scriptures, and probably more heavily burdened
with domestic cares than the "rich men" of the ecclesia. Thus the point is
again made that our spirituality is not related to the amount of spare
time which we have free to devote to Bible reading. It is from the
constant daily meditation on whatever spiritual food we have had time to
feed on that we can overcome temptation and thus have the heart-warming
knowledge of being thought of by God as "them that love Him". "If you love
me, keep (in memory) my commandments" Jesus had also said. Note that "the
Kingdom" and "the crown of life" are equated by comparing 1:12 and 2:5; as
in 2 Tim.4:1,8. Thus "the Kingdom" does not only refer to the 'political'
situation on the earth when Christ's rule has been established, but is
also a synonym for eternal life, "the crown of life". Thus at the
judgement seat the sheep are told "Inherit the Kingdom" (Mt. 25:34)- when
the Kingdom in the sense of Christ's political rulership of the earth has
not yet been established. Similarly, Christ's preaching "The Gospel of the
Kingdom of God" to Israel (Mt. 4:23) was not just composed of details
about the state of the world after His second coming- but also about the
opportunity of receiving "the crown of life" at His return. A study of the
Greek word 'basileia' translated 'Kingdom' indicates that it can refer to
all aspects of the King's rulership, not just the political Kingdom.
2:6 But you have dishonoured the poor man. Do not the rich oppress you,
and themselves drag you before the courts?- "The poor" here are
brethren- and therefore the poor labourers who were oppressed by the "rich
men" of the ecclesia in 5:4 must also refer to brethren in the ecclesia.
"Dishonour" here in 2:6 in the Greek can also carry the idea of active
abuse- it is also translated "dishonour" in Jn. 8:49, "suffer shame" in
Acts 5:41 and "entreated shamefully" in Lk. 20:11. These are all
concerning the Jews persecuting Christ and the early church. The only
other occurrence of the word (Rom. 1:24) is also concerning the apostate
Jews. Thus it may be that James is implying that this despising of the
poor Jewish believers and Gentiles in the ecclesia was the same as the
Judaizers and Jewish authorities behind them were doing. It would be
surprising if the letter of James, being addressed to Jewish Christians,
did not make some reference to the Judaist infiltration of the ecclesias,
which Paul's letters show was a major threat to the early church (e.g.
Gal. 2:4). The use of this word "despise" may thus imply that this group
of rich Jews had been infiltrated by the Judaizers. Their lack of total
commitment to the word would mean that their resistance to the Judaist
infiltration was low indeed. It is therefore to be expected that they
succumbed.
This recalls the descriptions of Jewish persecution of the saints:
"Saul… entering into every house (church?), and haling ("Dragging"- same
word in Jn.21:8) men and women committed them to prison" (Acts 8:3); "they
drew Jason and certain brethren unto the rulers of the city" (Acts 17:6).
The believers to whom James was writing had therefore suffered violent
physical persecution, and yet still they lacked any deep spirituality. The
rebuke later in this chapter of their attitude that works alone could
substitute for their weak faith may well have reference to this (cp. 1
Cor. 13:3; Rev. 2:13,14). No doubt it is extremely tempting when being
physically persecuted to feel that this excuses us from making the effort
to control our minds by the application of the word. In the holocaust to
come which we may well have to endure we will do well to remember this.
The implication behind James' use of these words is that as the Jews were
doing to them, so they were doing to their brethren, thus equating them
with the Jews- maybe implying that the Judaist infiltration was so subtle
that they were being influenced doctrinally by these people, and yet also
submitting to persecution from their 'provisional' wing. Israel's
relationship with Egypt, Assyria and Babylon had been similar.
2:7 Do not they blaspheme the honourable Name by which you are called?-
Or 'that is called upon you'- in baptism. 1 Tim. 6:1,2 associates the
blaspheming of God's Name with servants despising their masters who were
believers. The context in James is of believers despising their poor
brethren (v.6), perhaps through despising the brethren who were in their
employ (5:4). Thus the suggestion is that the same spiritual blasphemy
which occurred when believers were persecuted was repeated when a rich
brother abused or despised a fellow brother. Notice that it is the name of
God which is blasphemed in 1 Tim. 6:1, whilst at baptism the believers
called upon themselves the name of Christ- they were baptized into Christ
and thus became Christ's. This interchangeability of the name of Christ
and God occurs frequently in the New Testament- because God's Name was
given to Christ on his ascension (Phil. 2:9; Rev. 3:12). The reason for
the rich brethren despising the poor was through not appreciating that
God's Name was called upon those brethren- in the same way as the Jews'
blasphemy of the Name was through their lack of appreciation that the
believers carried the Name. Thus the key to successfully, humbly relating
to our brethren is to remind ourselves of the mighty Name which they bear,
and that to despise them is to despise God.
2:8 However, if you fulfil the royal law, according to the scripture:
You shall love your neighbour as yourself, you do well!-
"Royal" means the Kingly law- James' comment on the emphasis which Jesus
gave to the command to "love your neighbour" in Mt. 22:39, and especially
to the giving of the "new commandment... that you love one another, as I
have loved you" (Jn. 13:34). Mt. 22:37,38 clearly states that the command
to "love your neighbour" was secondary to that to love God. Yet the "new
commandment" of Jn. 13:34 to love your neighbour ("one another"), and
James' calling of this "the royal law" implies that now the law had been
ended on the cross, including the ten commandments written in stone (Col.
2:14-17), these two commands were one- because to love God is equivalent
to loving your spiritual neighbour, because by calling on the name of
Christ the neighbour therefore carried the Name of God, and thus to love
the neighbour is the same as loving God. This is the teaching of the
preceding v.7, as we have seen. Alternatively, "the royal law" may refer
to the entire Mosaic law- seeing that the law was fulfilled in the keeping
of that one commandment, to "love your neighbour as thyself" (Rom. 13:9).
Gal. 5:14 says the same, and as in James 2 the context is of not biting
and devouring one another within the ecclesia, as a result of Judaist
infiltration to stir up strife (Gal. 5:11,12,15). If the command to "love
your neighbour" was fulfilled with no subsequent despising of poor
brethren, "you do well". The Greek for "well" is the same word translated
"good" in v.3- the rich were invited to sit in a "good place" in the
ecclesia, i.e. in a place of spiritual honour and respect. Thus James is
saying that the ultimate qualification for sitting in the "good place" in
the ecclesia was to love the members of the ecclesia as oneself,
especially those whom it was tempting to despise. If the "royal law"
refers to the whole law of Moses, it should be noted that we must
fulfil it in spirit. It is easy to think that the Law was fulfilled solely
by Christ's death on the cross.
2:9 But if you show favouritism, you commit sin, being convicted by the
law as transgressors- This conviction by the Law may refer to
the command to Israel's judges: "You shall not respect persons in
judgment; but you shall hear the small (poor) as well as the great" (Dt.
1:17). These judges were therefore matched by Spirit-gifted ecclesial
elders in the New Israel. These judges were 'given' as heads over Israel
(Dt. 1:15 A.V.mg), as the ecclesia were 'given' Spirit-gifted elders (Eph.
4:11). Because of their power, "all the people shall hear and fear" (Dt.
17:13), exactly as they did after Peter's Spirit-guided judgment of
Ananias (Acts 5:11). The judges were "wise men" (Dt. 1:13)- hence James'
rebuke of the elders because they were unwise: "Who is a
wise man... among you?" (3:13 cp. 1 Cor. 6:5). The book of Malachi is a
rebuke of Israel's priests and judges- James' many allusions to it
tabulated in our comments on 4:8 are understandable once the connection
between Israel's judges and ecclesial elders is appreciated. Psalm 82
condemns the judges for doing many things which James accuses the elders
of doing: possessing the Spirit, but respecting persons, overlooking the
poor, fatherless and needy; neglecting the true knowledge of God, although
they had been called to be God's children. Col. 2:14-17 clearly shows that
the law in the form of the ten commandments, including that to "love thy
neighbour", had been replaced by Christ. Yet James reasons with his
readers as if they still respected the old law of commandments- again
indicating the slow transition to an acceptance that the Law had been
ended in Christ. The command to love one's neighbour as oneself is an
absolute statement; it cannot be fulfilled if one neighbour is loved more
than another. The love a man has for himself is complete- in fundamental
terms the degree of this love does not change with time or with the
characteristics he exhibits. This nature of love should be shown to the
brethren. To respect persons was to break this ideal. Thus Jesus could ask
us to love each other "As I have loved you" (Jn. 13:34). He loved us as
the church as a whole ("you" is plural), and therefore each of us receives
the same all consuming love of Christ, shown in summation by his death on
the cross. Our love to each other should be equally constant and without
the favouritism which seems almost inevitable with our natural mind.
2:10 For whoever shall keep the whole law and yet stumble in one point,
he is guilty of breaking all of it- As with so much in James, this
seems almost too idealistic. But James drives the importance of it home:
"For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he
is guilty of all" (v.10). This is identical reasoning to Gal. 3:10-13,
where Paul is arguing that the Galatians should resist the inroads of the
Judaizers and not return to the Law- therefore suggesting that there was
an identical situation amongst James' readers, as there probably was in
nearly every first century ecclesia, especially the Jewish-dominated ones.
2:11 For He that said: Do not commit adultery, also said: Do not kill.
So if you do not commit adultery but if you kill, you have become a
transgressor of the law- "For that law which said (AVmg.), Do not
commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if you commit no adultery,
yet if you kill, you are become a transgressor of the Law" (v.11). The
statement that "that law" included two separate commandments (concerning
murder and adultery) shows that "the royal law" of v.8 may well refer to
the whole law of Moses, which was fulfilled by loving the neighbour
(Rom.13:9). These two commands concerning adultery and murder occur
together elsewhere; it may be that James chose them because in spirit they
are easily broken due to an uncontrolled mind; and the control of the mind
is the great theme of James. Spiritual adultery is further defined in 4:4:
"You adulterers and adulteresses, know you not that the friendship of the
world is enmity with God?", thus interpreting adultery as having worldly
friends. Those to whom James was writing were aware, so v.11 implies, that
literal and spiritual adultery were wrong, but were not so conscious of
the command not to kill each other by hating them in their heart (Mt.
5:21,22). The fighting and killing which James describes as happening
amongst his readers (4:1,2) must refer also to this spiritual murder due
to lack of love (to what else can it apply?). It is noteworthy that James
is one of the few New Testament letters that does not contain explicit
warning against sexual misbehaviour. We can thus start to build up a
fuller picture of James' audience- keeping dutifully away from worldly
friendships, holding themselves back from sexual sin, yet trading
zealously with the world to make much profit (4:13), and unaware of the
supreme importance of the command to love each other, resulting in them
transgressing the law in spirit. Perhaps they are not without their
counterparts today.
2:12 So speak and act as men that are to be judged by a law of liberty-
The Saviour came more to save than condemn (Jn. 12:47); it is men who
condemn themselves as inappropriate to receive eternal life. It is
their words, not His, which will be the basis of their rejection. We
must so speak as those who will be judged, knowing that he who shewed no
mercy in his words will receive none (James 2:12,13); our words of mercy
or condemnation, and perhaps the way we say them, will be the basis
upon which we will be accepted or rejected.
This lack of love was especially shown in their words: "So speak and
act…”. Notice the equation of words and actions ("speak... do"),
continuing the theme of thoughts and words being the same as physical
actions. "The law of liberty" is normally used elsewhere in contrast to
the Law of Moses- another subtle swipe at the Judaist tendencies in the
early Jewish ecclesias. We must speak our words in accordance with the
fact that we will be judged by the word; if we have the word/law of
liberty (cp. 1:25) in our hearts and therefore influencing our words, we
need not fear our judgement by that word. Thus we judge ourselves now by
our response to the word in practice, by how far we let it influence our
words and doings, especially in the area of showing love to our brother.
2:13 For judgment is without mercy to whomsoever has shown no mercy.
Mercy triumphs over judgment- This appears to be alluding to
Job 22:6-11, where Eliphaz says just the same about Job, saying that the
harsh judgements coming upon Job were a result of him being harsh in his
dealings with his fellow men previously- e.g. "Thou hast sent widows away
empty...therefore snares are round about thee" (AV), as they were around a
widow. Several of the things Eliphaz mentions in his accusations of Job
are also themes in James:
|
James |
"Thou hast...stripped the naked of their clothing |
"If a brother or sister be naked" (and you don't clothe them),
(2:15) |
Thou hast not given water to the weary to drink, and thou hast
withholden bread from the hungry... |
"Destitute of daily food" |
But as for the mighty man, he had the earth (i.e. you gave
much to him) |
"You have respect to him that wears the gay clothing" and
neglect the poor (2:3) |
...thou hast sent widows away empty, and the arms of the
(1:27) fatherless have been broken". |
"Visit the fatherless and the widow in their affliction" |
If these connections are valid- and there are several other places where
James is writing with Job in mind- then it appears that James did not see
Job as beyond reproof; but that like those to whom James wrote he was a
rich businessman, trusting in his own strength. This fits in to the many
other indications that Job represented those Jews who trusted in the Law.
If the allegations of Eliphaz in Job 22 are therefore partly true, Job's
clearing of himself from these things in Job 31 is to be read as
sophistry- and therefore this clearing of himself is vigorously rebuked by
Elihu, speaking on God's behalf, in Job 32. It is not unreasonable to
think that it is not just the recording of the friends' words that was
inspired but that to some degree their rebuke of Job was also directly
inspired by God, although not all they said can be treated like this. We
are quick enough to accept their reasoning regarding the mortality of man
as inspired statements of Divine truth- why not some of their other
statements about Job?
"He shall have judgment without mercy" suggests the picture of two
people at the judgment seat being judged for the same sin; one is forgiven
because he had showed mercy, while the other is rejected for not doing so.
The rejoicing of the merciful brother is then set against the misery of
the unmerciful brother. Mercy will then rejoice against judgment in
the same way as the men of Nineveh will rise up against the
unworthy at judgment day.
Note the implication that the believer should shew mercy. The Greek
word translated "shewed" in v.13 is not the normal word translated thus.
The word used here means literally 'to do a work', again continuing James'
theme that spiritual actions are still 'works'. This lack of love and
harsh judgement amongst James' audience was also connected with an
academic emphasis on faith to the neglect of works- seeing that v.14
continues "What does it profit, my brethren, though a man say he has
faith, and have not works? Can faith save him?". It seems true in practice
that those who are busy actively expressing their faith in works tend to
have less time for unnecessarily harsh judgement of others in the
ecclesia. It did not "profit"- literally 'heap up'. Those to whom James
wrote were hard working traders (4:13); thus such language was especially
relevant to them. Again, James is working out a very telling play on
words: 'Your heaping up of material profit while being academically
familiar with your faith is not heaping up spiritual profit'. These
brethren said they had faith. Later in chapter 3 James points out
that because the word was not really controlling their thoughts, their
words were uncontrolled. An example of this would be this public talking
about their faith, heaping up a reward in the eyes of men.
2:14 My brothers, what good is it if a man claims to have faith but has
no works? Can that faith save him?- James speaks of the man who says
to his poor brother ‘Be ye warmed and filled’ but does nothing about it
practically. This, James says, is dead faith; faith without works is not
faith. But the man said those words, so James’ logic goes, in faith
that somehow the poor man would be helped. Yet he did nothing, and
therefore his faith wasn’t really faith; “can that faith save him?”
(James 2:14 RV). There is true faith, and ‘that’ kind of faith which only
appears to be faith in the eyes of the person holding it.
A notable example of faith without works is then given in v.15,16. It ends
with the challenge "What does it profit"- cp. v.14 "What does it
profit...though a man say he has faith, and have not works?".
2:15 If a brother or sister is naked and in lack of daily food- It
is probable that this was not a hypothetical situation; 5:4,5 describe
some rich brethren as oppressing their brethren who were their
agricultural employees. "Lack" means literally 'coming short', perhaps
connecting with the fact that the employers kept back these brethren's
wages (5:4).
2:16 And one of you says to them: Go in peace, be warmed and filled!
And yet you do not give them the things needful to the body- what does it
profit?- 1 Cor.13:2 makes the point that it is quite possible to have
great faith without having any true love for one's brother. Similarly,
these people were saying in absolute faith, really believing it would be
done by God, "Go in peace, be warmed and filled". “Go” or "Depart" either
implies they were told this by their employers to whom they came with
their request, or perhaps that they were told to depart from the ecclesial
meeting where such requests were considered. It would seem that their rich
employers were these brethren who refused their requests. The mention of
lack of food and clothing ("naked") recalls Mt. 6:25, where the Lord
assures His people that these needs will always be provided for. Yet the
believers James writes of had to be concerned about these things. It may
be that God provides for our needs by giving the means to the rich in the
Ecclesia, but it still depends on their freewill decision to share what
they have.
2:17 Even so, faith, if it does not have works, is dead in itself-
This is in the context of the previous eight verses which have been
reprimanding the readers for the lack of a loving mind. These are the
"works" which were lacking, as well as the physical "works" of giving
material support. There must be a connection here with Christ's words:
"Except a corn of wheat fall into the ground and die, it abides alone: but
if it die, it brings forth much fruit" (Jn. 12:24). If this connection is
valid, then James is equating faith with the seed of wheat. The seed
represents the word (Lk. 8:11; 1 Pet. 1:23), supremely manifested in the
Lord Jesus. The equation is because "Faith comes by hearing, and hearing
by the word of God". Thus James is saying that the word seed in us should
bring forth fruit in our caring for others, in the same way as Jesus died
in order to bring forth much spiritual fruit in us. The rich brethren
needed to make the same kind of short term sacrifice due to the effect of
the word in their lives, in order to care for their brethren's welfare, as
Jesus did for them. It is significant that in v.26 faith is likened to a
dead body, which is the same figure being used here in v.17.
2:18 Yes, a man will say, you have faith and I have works. Show me your
faith apart from your works and I, by my works, will show you my faith-
The man is implying that if James has faith and he has works, then between
them they should be accepted. Thus the man was effectively advocating
salvation by works, whilst agreeing that faith was also important-
although not essential for him personally to develop. This sounds like the
reasoning of the wavering Jewish believers. James replies that faith and
works are indivisible, that true spiritual works cannot exist without
faith. Thus it is irrelevant for a believer to think that he must
concentrate on developing 'faith' or 'works' as independent things- what
God looks for is 'faith-works', i.e. a faith whose very nature leads to
works; a faith that works by love (Gal. 5:6). Thus the works follow
as an inevitable corollary from the faith, and therefore are not
consciously performed. Therefore James reasons that a wise man will "shew
out of a good conversation his works with meekness of wisdom" (3:13). "You
believe that there is one God"- the fundamental truth of Judaism which the
Christian Jews prided themselves on- "the devils (demoniacs) also believe,
and tremble" (v.19), alluding to the sick often trembling before their
cure. This may refer to the many incidents of curing of demoniacs in the
Gospels, all of whom were parabolic of the hopeless state of the Jewish
system. More significantly, James is referring to the fact that many
people during Christ's ministry had had the faith to be cured, but only a
handful had responded with the works which a word based faith should have
produced- as opposed to the intense hope and belief in personal betterment
which the people had. The other person in the conversation is described as
a "vain man" (v.20); "vain" meaning empty headed or minded, referring to
the demoniac state of v.19. We saw in 1:26 how the man who did not have
the word in his heart to control his tongue was also "vain". The man
referred to here in 2:20 was without faith, and thus without the word,
seeing this is the basis of faith. Faith without works is barren (v.20,
Gk.). This is in the context of v.21 speaking of once barren Abraham (Rom.
4:19 implies he was impotent when Isaac was conceived) being "our
father", as well as that of Isaac. Faith with works is therefore
spiritually fruitful. Faith without works being barren or dead may
hint at the deadness of Abraham's body and Sarah's womb (Rom. 4:19).
Despite having produced Isaac, their faith and works were only completed
by the offering up of Isaac. Until that point, they were still effectively
'dead' in God's sight, not being totally proven.
2:19 You believe that God is one! You do well. The demons also believe
and shudder- James 2:14-18 speaks of the connection between faith
(believing) and works (doing). It is no co-incidence that 2:19 then
says in this context: "You believe that God is one… you do
well". To have faith in the unity of God will lead to works,
'doing well'.
“Demons” is put here by metonymy for the [supposedly] demon possessed
people, and their observed ‘trembling’ at the time of their cure. But I
don’t think that this verse is James as it were telling us doctrinal truth
about demons. The context of James 2 shows it to be part of an imagined
dialogue between the “works man” [who thinks works can save], and a “faith
man” [who thinks merely saying we believe is enough and our lives are
irrelevant]. Both these imaginary men come out with ‘wrong’ statements, so
it’s not surprising that the ‘works man’ disparages ‘faith’ by saying that
even demon possessed people can believe and be cured. Of itself, this
passage can hardly be taken as proof that demons really do believe – the
usual position taken is that demons are fallen angels who cannot believe
and cannot repent nor be healed. This passage even taken on face value
would contradict that system of belief.
2:20 But, O vain man, do you need evidence that faith without works is
useless?- Faith without works is “barren” (James 2:20 RV)- the
implication being that if we do the works which our beliefs elicit from
us, yet more creative fruit is brought forth. And James goes straight on
to speak of Abraham offering Isaac (James 2:21)- as if to say that Abraham
and Sarah’s ‘barrenness’ was overcome by their faith, and this led them to
the ‘opportunity’ to show yet more faith in being prepared to offer
Isaac.
2:21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, in that he offered
up Isaac his son upon the altar?- James goes on to show how Abraham's
faith brought works as a natural by-product. The phrase "Abraham our
father" looks back to Mt. 3:8,9 and Jn. 8:33,39, where the Jews who said
this were told to "bring forth fruits (works) meet for repentance" and to
"do the works of Abraham" respectively. Thus James was telling his readers
to do the works of Abraham. The fact they were doing works already shows
that the real 'work' of Abraham they needed to develop was his faith.
"This is the work of God, that ye believe" (Jn. 6:29), Jesus had said. The
Biblically minded would have spotted the apparently flat contradiction
between "Abraham our father (was) justified by works" and Rom. 4:2, which
stresses that Abraham was not justified by his works but by his faith.
Thus again the "works" which James says Abraham was justified by were his
faith and the practical outworking of it in being prepared to offer
Isaac. Abraham's "works" were that "he had offered Isaac his son upon the
altar" (v.21). Notice the past tense of "he had offered" and that it does
not say 'he bound Isaac...'. Because of Abraham's faith that God would
resurrect Isaac on behalf of the perfect lamb sacrifice that he believed
was to come (Gen. 22:5,8,14), it was reckoned to Abraham as if he had
performed the 'work' of offering Isaac even though he had not physically
performed it. Thus the Biblically minded would be able to see from these
allusions to other Scriptures that the spiritual attribute of faith and
the concept of works are almost indivisible. This is confirmed by noting
that the one act of offering up Isaac is described as "works" in the
plural- because it involved many separate decisions of faith. And in our
lives too, God may count something to us as a completed work when we have
only summoned enough true faith to do it, and have not actually performed
it in reality.
2:22 You saw that faith worked together with his works, and so by works
was faith perfected- Faith is perfected / matured by the process of
works (James 2:22,23). The works, the upward spiral of a life lived on the
basis of faith, develop the initial belief in practice. Thus Abraham
believed God in Gen. 15, but the works of Gen. 22 [offering Isaac] made
that faith “perfect”. It is that faith, therefore, which does the works.
Verse 22 puts this in so many words: "Seest thou how faith wrought with
his works, and by works was faith made perfect?". Note too the upward
spiral initiated by having a basic faith- faith led to works, and those
works perfected the faith. The Greek word for "wrought" is the same
translated 'worker together' in 2 Cor. 6:1: "We then, as workers together
with (God)". Faith 'works' alongside the physical works. The preceding
verse (2 Cor. 5:21) speaks of how God is working through His gift of
Christ for our salvation through our not relying on our own works. Paul
says he is working together with God to get the believers not to "receive
the grace of God in vain" by relying on their physical works for
salvation. By having this attitude to works and faith, Abraham's faith was
"made perfect" or finished, implying that it is possible for a man to
develop a fullness of faith in something, a totality of belief which needs
no further improvement. If Abraham could reach this dizzy height, it must
certainly be within reach of all his seed.
2:23 And the scripture was fulfilled which said: And Abraham believed
God and it was accredited to him as righteousness; and he was called the
friend of God- James 2:23 speaks as if the comment "Abraham believed
in God, and it was counted to him for righteousness" was a one-off
statement made at that time when Abraham believed; and it was subsequently
justified when Abraham demonstrated his faith by offering Isaac. So the
comment that "Abraham believed" surely must refer to Abraham's response as
he stood there looking up at the stars.
This is quoting Gen. 15:5,6, where in the moment that Abraham looked up at
the stars and believed (so Rom. 4:23 implies) "So shall your seed be", God
"counted it to him for righteousness". God knew that Abraham's faith in
those words would really be shown when he was asked to offer Isaac, the
only human means of their fulfilment. Thus the Scripture recorded that
Abraham was righteous when this was as yet unproved by his works. However,
that Scripture was fulfilled when Abraham was prepared to offer Isaac. The
point is being made that just that kind of intense faith is as if the
works have already been done- which is exactly in line with James'
preceding reasoning. The use of the phrase "The Scripture" implies that
either there was a literal written account made of the words of Gen. 15:6
which was then validated by Abraham's offering of Isaac (note "was
fulfilled", past tense), or "The Scripture" refers to some kind of
(Angelic?) record in Heaven of events in our probations, similar to the
concept of the deeds of believers being written in a book of life. The
evidence for either seems about equal, and there is no reason why both
cannot be correct. "The scripture of truth" in Dan. 10:21 appears to have
been some written record available to the Angels which they revealed to
man. "The Scripture" elsewhere in James seems to refer to the general
spirit of God's principles in dealing with man: "The Scripture saith...The
spirit that dwelleth in us..." (4:5) does not seem to refer to any
specific written scripture, and "the royal law" (i.e. what was
specifically placed on record) seems to be separate from "the scripture"
in 2:8. Similarly "the scripture" foresaw that God would justify the
heathen (Gal.3:8), and "concluded all under sin "(Gal. 3:22), hinting that
"the scripture" is more than just the written words. Writing was certainly
developed by Abraham's time, and a literal written statement of Abraham's
acceptance with God being verified by his offering of Isaac is an
attractive idea. That "the scripture" which was fulfilled at the time of
the offering of Isaac (James 2:20) was something written is suggested in
Rom. 4:22,23, where the fact "it was imputed to him" in Gen. 15:6 "was not
written for his sake alone". The fact Abraham was justified for his faith
was written for Abraham to see at some time in his life. The point has
been made that the descriptions of Sodom in Gen. 10:19 (cp. Gen. 14:3)
imply that Genesis 10 was written before Sodom's destruction as recorded
in Gen.19. Thus it is reasonable to suggest that Gen.15 may also have been
in written existence.
2:24 You see that by works a man is justified and not only by faith-
Romans 4 stresses that works do not justify a man, but rather a
true faith that is expressed in actions. "Faith only" must therefore refer
to a holding of true doctrine and a hope that God provides physical help,
as characterized by the healed demoniacs (2:19) and exemplified by those
who asked in prayer for things to "consume upon your lusts" (4:2,3). There
is a definite connection between "faith" as a spiritual quality and "the
faith" as the set of doctrines which the believer accepts. It is these
which produce the attribute of faith. The "works" James is referring to
are 'faith works'- i.e. works that come as a natural corollary to faith
and which include spiritual attributes like belief in God's word.
2:25 And in like manner was not also Rahab the harlot justified by
works, in that she received the messengers and sent them out another way?-
The use of the word "messengers" instead of "spies" implies that the spies
came with a message which Rahab believed. The Joshua record stresses how
she knew the covenant Name, knew and quoted the words of Moses (Josh.
2:9), and had her roof covered with flax- i.e. linen, perhaps hinting at
the righteousness already imputed to her for her faith. The message which
the spies brought was probably a call to repentance, or perhaps a
statement of the coming destruction of Jericho. Rahab's acceptance of this
message based on her knowledge of God's basic principles corresponds to
the holding of 'the faith' by the Jewish Christians. Her sending out of
the spies another way was the 'works' that came as a natural response to
her true faith. Her hiding of the spies, courageous lying to the Jericho
Gestapo or putting the cord out of the window as a public testimony to her
separation were her physical 'works'- but these are not chosen as an
example of her 'faith-works'. Her scheming to enable the spies to safely
return to Joshua by them going out "another way" and thereby enabling the
campaign against Jericho to begin, showed her real "works". She believed
their message about the destruction of Jericho, therefore in faith she
enabled the spies to return to bring this about. Rahab was "justified...
when...", again showing that justification or faith being made
perfect (v.22) is something that can occur at a specific moment after
reaching a certain degree of faith which has been expressed in actions
(cp. Abraham looking up at the stars and believing). The implication here
in v.25 is that the moment the spies were sneaking through the outskirts
of Jericho following her directions, Rahab was justified.
2:26 For as the body apart from the spirit is dead, even so faith apart
from works is dead- 'Faith' is being likened to a person, i.e.
the believer in the conversation of v.18-20 who thinks that his own faith
alone will save him. "The Spirit" is often a reference to a spiritual
mind, notably in Romans. Thus the body is equated with faith as the Spirit
or spiritual attributes are with "works".